UNITED STATES is NOT “The United States of America”!…continued

15 Dec

us not countryus inc

Quick history review, as I recall it: The United States of America, a union of the “Several states” dissolved (in effect) during the Civil War when the US Congress went “sine dei” (“without day”) and could not set the date that they would re-convene. The “confederate” states would not or could not rejoin the original union after the “war” (of Northern aggression).

Under the organic constitution of AD 1789/1791, in Art 1 Sec 8 Cl 17, Congress was given virtually unlimited authority over its seat of government, Washington DC, the District of Columbia. Washington DC was the “territory” of the US Congress, and OUTSIDE the jurisdiction of any of the Republics.

In 1871, Congress created a private, foreign corporation to enable it to do business, which was within its lawful constitutional powers. Congress (actually the illusion of Congress, as it did not lawfully function then) had been acting under a corporate name for a short time after the war, and the big switcheroo happened between the 13th and 14th Amendments.

Remember that Congress deliberately deceived the American People by naming their seat of Government “United States”! This is an entirely different and separate entity, outside and foreign to “The United States of America”!

The creation document for this new corporation in 1871 is called the “Constitution of the United States”. Remember the original, organic constitution from 1789 was not given a name, but was commonly called the “Constitution for the united States of America” and the entity created is styled “The United States of America”.

Look closely at the particular wording of the now existing (the original 13th abolished titles of nobility, ie “lawyers”) 13th Amendment which “freed the slaves”: “(No) slavery…shall exist within the United States, or any place subject to their jurisdiction.” This was in 1865, right at the end of the war and before the Congress incorporated “United States”, and the use of the possessive “their” clearly indicated that the “United States” referred to was the confederation of the Several states of the American union.

Because the next thing that the “new” US Congress did was to give federal citizenship to those freed negroes by crafting the 14th Amendment. Little did the People of that day realize that this amendment would eventually enslave us ALL under the federal thumb.

But that “citizenship” was a deceit! The wording of the first clause refers to “subject to its jurisdiction”. The singular possessive, “its”…..nottheir”….jurisdiction. Meaning the new corporation “United States”, a totally different entity than “The United States of America”! “Its”…. A very small word with huge implications. The negroes became “citizens” of a corporation! Oh sure, they were given “rights”.  But these were watered-down civil rights, which were subject to limitation and control. “Civil” refers to “citizen” (lower-case “C”), which means subject or slave.

From the 14th Amendment on, everything the federal “government” has done has been on the unlimited, unfettered, exclusive authority of its corporation. A corporation that has NO MORE AUTHORITY OR POWER than Safeway, Inc. or Les Schwab Tires, Inc.

But a corporation that the organic constitution allows to have “exclusive legislative jurisdiction” over its territory. Remember, that means it is NOT BOUND to protect our unalienable, inherent rights.

Congress can make any laws it wants for its territory. And its territory is called “United States”. It can create all the alphabet agencies it wants, with NO restraints or duty to protect our rights.

Next, we will talk about “federal States” which are the territorial property of the US Congress, and whether or not you and I actually “reside” in “this state” of affairs.


Posted by on December 15, 2014 in Constitution Education


4 responses to “UNITED STATES is NOT “The United States of America”!…continued

  1. Jake

    December 15, 2014 at 9:57 pm

    So where does this leave us as Oath Keepers? Which constitution did we pledge our loyalty and defense to?

    I solemnly swore to defend the Constitution against all enemies foreign and domestic. But since I didn’t specifically clarify which constitution it was (organic de jure of 1789 or the corporate de facto of 1871) at the time, which one is presumed?…because I can assure you that my intent was loyalty to the organic.

    So, if I didn’t specify one way or the other, than is it automatically presumed that I pledged to the corporate one by default?

    • bakercountysolutions

      December 17, 2014 at 6:36 am

      Short answer: yes. “Presumptions” are a HUGE part of the fraud against our People. There will be future writings about how to overcome certain presumptions with evidence.

      A major part of this educational blog is devoted to teaching our People that there are multiple constitutions, and they apply to multiple jurisdictions and parties. Future blogs will deal with very important issues, such as:

      1) If I am not one of the original parties to a constitution, do I have any standing to claim any beneficiary Rights under that constitution?
      2) If my elected public servant took an oath to a foreign, private corporation such as “UNITED STATES” or “STATE OF OREGON” in error, through deception, is he still bound to protect my unalienable rights as my fiduciary?
      3) If that elected public servant later discovered that he had executed an Oath to the WRONG (corporate) constitution, can he lawfully correct his error?
      4) Even though that public servant executed his Oath to the WRONG (corporate) constitution, does he have the lawful standing to claim original rights under the CORRECT organic constitution?
      5) If that public official has taken his Oath to the correct constitution, is he bound as a trustee to protect and defend the Rights of any of the People who have waived or contracted away their Rights and joined the private, foreign corporate federal government?

      Interesting questions for which we hope to provide helpful answers.

  2. Jake

    December 15, 2014 at 10:38 pm

    One interesting distinction I just noticed was that the military and some Sheriff’s oaths are to support and defend the Constitution of the United States while the oath taken by immigrants is to support and defend the Constitution of the United States of America.

    • bakercountysolutions

      December 17, 2014 at 6:14 am

      Jake, good observation. Most times that “constitutions” are mentioned, they are inaccurately referenced. In your example, there is not any such entity as the latter. Sure, there may be something styled “The United States of America”, while another entity may be styled as “United States of America”,and another as “united States of America”, and EACH MAY HAVE A CREATION DOCUMENT CALLED A “CONSTITUTION”! But is it the “constitution” to which the public servants have sworn their oaths? Maybe not. Likely not.

      But unless an actual DATE is appended to the actual creation document, great confusion abounds. And that “confusion” is the work of satan, because different legal relationships will exist between the parties to the document, giving a variety of different rights and duties.

      The result is “mixed and multiple jurisdictions” which create a fictional world in which all Rights are lost. You can’t claim Rights under one constitution if your fiduciary public servant has not sworn an oath to that constitution.

      Be vewwy, vewwy careful!


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